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Replies | Post Reply | Shakespeare Queries & Replies From Everyone Else 4.2.97: Top | Help
I wrote: A contemporary writer
who presents a gay couple will have a totally different
set of assumptions about what that means than would a
renaissance writer depicting an erotically charged
friendship between men.You answered: Hmmm... Are we generalizing?
To which I say: Nope. There is no evidence that anybody
in the renaissance understood sexuality to be a definitive
identity-defining trait. So nobody would say "I'm gay" or
"I'm bi." So the social meaning of a character's sexuality
is different in different historical moments. Regardless
of what the historical Shakespeare did or didn't do, we can
he understood sexuality differently than do we.
Posted by Cloten on April 10, 1997 at 17:27:47
In Reply to "Okay, and?" posted by Bruce Spielbauer on April 10, 1997 at 17:14:23
Replies | Post Reply | Shakespeare Queries & Replies From Everyone Else 4.2.97: Top | Help