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It has been brought to my attention that Banquo was of direct ascendance to the crown of King James the first, who was in fact King James the III rd of Scotland. It seems that this Scottish King became the King of England when the two thrones were merged; Shakespeare did not implicate Banquo in the murders as a means of remaining in the favor of his descendants, the British Monarchs. Banquo was in fact a rogue, one who's cold-blooded ambition rivalled Macbeth's, however Shakespeare had to distort this in order to avoid punishment at the hands of King James. As well, these facts may be of interest:
1-The play's events took place over a thirty year span im reality; they were condensed into a few weeks due to the constraints of seventeenth century theater.
2-Duncan was not a goodly, virtuous king; he was in fact a very young, simple-minded, unwise regent.
3-The crown remained in Macbeth's line of ascendance for another king after Macbeth's death. His stepson became king after Macbeth was slain, not Malcolm. Malcolm, it turns out, murdered this stepson in order to assume the throne.
4-Perhaps a justification for Roman Polanski's alterations to the tragedy, it has been ascertained that Donalbain became king of Scotland following the death of his brother, Malcolm III.I hope that this has been a help to the historical events surrounding Macbeth.
Posted by Oloferno on May 13, 1997 at 18:12:47
In Reply to "Asked and answered" posted by Hamlet on March 24, 1997 at 11:21:49
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