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Replies | Post Reply | Shakespeare Queries From Genuinely Interested Students 4.2.97: Top | Help
Yes, I knew that's his general meaning. But that was not my
question.It is this: does shakespeare mean
1) I never wrote; also, no man has ever been in love
or
2) I never wrote, and _I_ never loved any man.I'm quite aware that this is a question that's been debated
before, and the text really gives us no idea as to what it's
"real" meaning is. If it's the latter, then it certainly
would not be the first time homoerotic ideas has surfaced in
Shakespeare.Posted by Rick on April 22, 1997 at 23:59:29
In Reply to "I'm telling the truth" posted by Hamlet on April 22, 1997 at 08:44:11
Replies | Post Reply | Shakespeare Queries From Genuinely Interested Students 4.2.97: Top | Help