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You wrote the following sarcastic, rhetorical question:"So,
what facinating perceptions can one gain by noting that
it had something to do with the "life or times" of the
author, William Shakespeare?"I take that to mean - in its dismissive context - that there's
nothing to be gained by asserting any connection between
Shakespeare's
interest in homoerotics and anything about his life and times.I agree that there is plenty of literature from different
which deals with related issues. But to say that is not
to deny that the interest in them might vary historically
or in fact from writer to writer. A contemporary writer
who presents a gay couple will have a totally different
set of assumptions about what that means than would a
renaissance writer depicting an erotically charged
friendship between men.
Posted by Cloten on April 10, 1997 at 16:59:09
In Reply to "And your point is?" posted by Bruce Spielbauer on April 10, 1997 at 14:32:40
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