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....but what about words such as "Assassination", which first occurred in Shakespeare in 1605 in Macbeth - but was derived from the word "assassin" which originates in Latin and French. Is this classed as a COINAGE or a CONVERSION? Or do you believe that it was already in use at the time and Shakespeare was merely the first to record it?
Posted by Rachel Mort on April 15, 1997 at 10:24:15
In Reply to "We don't know." posted by Thersites on April 14, 1997 at 04:29:14
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