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The final thing Shakespeare has *anyone* say about Hamlet is that he would have most likely been a *good* king. Why would he do such a thing if he wanted to convey the exact opposite point of view?Posted by Justin Bacon on April 01, 1997 at 15:20:22
In Reply to "Foiled again" posted by Hamlet on April 01, 1997 at 09:01:58
Replies | Post Reply | Shakespeare Queries From Genuinely Interested Students 3.15.97: Top | Help