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Replies | Post Reply | Shakespeare Queries & Replies From Everyone Else 3.15.97: Top | Help
it isn't the case of lack of education that the argument rests on -
that certainly could be a part of it, but it is possible that he could
have somehow gotten his education otherwise. The real crux
of the question is that there is no documented proof that
Shakespeare indeed 'did' write the plays. While he was living
no document mentions him in any context other than businessman,
grain merchant, possibly small part actor and part owner of
the theater. But no one talks about him as a great mind, or wit, or
thinker, or poet, or anything until long after he is dead, then
the accolade come out, which leads one to think, 'How come the accolades
didn't come out when he died?' But indeed, there was no notice
of his passing on April 23, 1616. This, combined with the rest,
the lack of education, sudden rise from nowhere, illiterate family,
no existing letters, and all the other lack of documentary proof
one finds when looking up Lyly or Kyd or even the mysterious Marlowe
doesn't exist for Shakespeare, and that's the very reasonable
reason for the questions. His name on the plays is all there is
pointing to him as author.Posted by Bill Routhier on March 25, 1997 at 11:41:36
In Reply to "Here's the story" posted by Hamlet on March 23, 1997 at 12:27:14
Replies | Post Reply | Shakespeare Queries & Replies From Everyone Else 3.15.97: Top | Help