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ad infinitum

I agree that it can be relevent to an enlightened interpretation of his works -- but as things stand now, the question is unanswerable and these web page scirmishes are getting tiresome -- unless someone comes up weith something new to say.
Also, I'd leave the success of his "rare ability (among male writers) to create flesh-and-blood women" for women to judge.

Posted by JTJ on April 09, 1997 at 12:31:13
In Reply to "Shakespeare's sexuality (2)" posted by Professor Mike on April 09, 1997 at 08:59:49

 Replies

• dugs half brother Michael Cigam 11:09:02 4/10/97 (1)
  • Micheal X 11:13:10 4/10/97 (0)
• evidence Professor Mike 02:51:09 4/10/97 (10)
  • I know this is beyond your comprehension, but... Reality Chuck 07:25:30 4/15/97 (0)
  • I'm arguing neither for nor against your proposition . . . JTJ 06:27:17 4/10/97 (1)
    • Evidence (2) Prof Mike 14:20:44 4/10/97 (0)
  • Because the work is fiction. Reality Chuck 05:50:10 4/10/97 (2)
    • reply to 'fiction' perdita 19:06:52 4/10/97 (1)
      • So is "gay." Reality Chuck 08:06:56 4/11/97 (0)
  • Re: evidence Thersites 04:21:08 4/10/97 (3)
    • Evidence (3) Prof Mike 14:32:51 4/10/97 (2)
      • Why the sonnets? Thersites 03:26:19 4/11/97 (0)
      • Sonnets Not A Play... And Your Point Is? Bruce Spielbauer 15:14:56 4/10/97 (0)
• oh, all right -- "skirmishes" JTJ 12:33:57 4/09/97 (0)

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Replies | Post Reply | Shakespeare Queries & Replies From Everyone Else 4.2.97: Top | Help